Colossians 2:9

Colossians 2:9 states: "For in Him (Christ) all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form."

It is interesting to note that this is not the first time Paul said someone was filled with ‘all the fullness of God.” Check out Ephesians 3:19:

“That ye might be filled with all the fullness of God.” (KJV)
“that you may be filled up with all the fullness of God” (NASB)
“that you may be filled to the measure of all the fullness of God” (NIV)
“And so at last you will be filled up with God himself” (The Living Bible)

No one would argue Paul was saying we are God since “all thefullness of God dwells in us,” why say Christ is God because all the fullness of God dwells in him? It seems Paul was stating Christ was full of God’s divine qualities, of which he tells us we should be too.

Whatever we choose to believe there still is one fact, though, that should not escape our notice. A passage just a few verses before Colossians 2:9.

“For God was please to have all his fullness dwell in him.” (NJB)

What does it mean by saying, "For God was pleased," or as another translation puts it, "the Father's good pleasure for"?

Thayer expounds on this, with the following: "as in secular authors, followed by an infinitive, it seems good to one, is one's good pleasure; to think it good, choose, determine, decide: Luke 12:32; 1 Cor. 1:21; Gal. 1:15; once followed by the accusative with an infinitive, Col. 1:19 (cf. Lightfoot; Winer's Grammar, sec. 64, 3 b.; Buttmann, sec. 129, 16); with the included idea of kindness accompanying the decision"

It was the Father, the God of Jesus, who chose for the fullness to dwell in him, but further with the idea of kindness accompanying his choice to do this.

What this means is that Christ's indwelling of these divine attributes and qualities was not due to Christ having an eternal nature of such, but it was something that the Father chose to have dwell in him.

How could God see good, or decide, or consent to Jesus having all the fullness of the divine quality IF Jesus was already GOD the Son, the second person of the Trinity BY NATURE?

The answer is this: he wasn't always divinity, or a divine being. For if he was, then Paul could NOT have written what he did in Colossians 1:19.

But some still say: "Regardless of how he got this nature, this still means he is God, because all the fullness ofthe divine quality, or nature is in him!" Is this the case? Because Jesus has all the fullness of the divine quality or nature in him, does this make him God?

Look at 2 Peter 1:4 which I referred to earlier. There we read: "Through these things he has freely given us the precious and very grand promises, that through these YOU may become sharers in divine nature, having escaped from the corruption that is in the world through lust."

Yes, according to Peter, the disciples also become sharers in the divine nature. In fact Paul tells us this in the verse right after Colossians 2:9, where we read: "And so YOU are possessed of a fullness by means of him, who is the head of all government and authority."

So does this mean that they also are God? No it doesn't. And neither is Jesus God because he has a divine nature.